Macbeth
How doesn't act 2 scene 1 develop pathos for both Duncan and Macbeth?
How doesn't act 2 scene 1 develop pathos for both Duncan and Macbeth?
How doesn't act 2 scene 1 develop pathos for both Duncan and Macbeth?
I feel a little bit sorry for Duncan. He is totally clueless about his imminent death but it is a rather harsh. Macbeth has only himself to blame for his actions. He is killing Duncan because of his own ambitions and L. Macbeth's influence over him.