Answer
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0^-}f\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)=0$
Work Step by Step
Let $y=\dfrac{1}{x}$
If $x\to 0$ from the left then $y\to -\infty$
That gives, $\lim_\limits{x\to 0^-}f\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)=\lim_\limits{y\to -\infty}f(y)$
Since, according to given $\lim_\limits{y\to -\infty}f(y)=0$
We get, $\lim_\limits{x\to 0^-}f\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)=0$