Answer
Yes, see the example below.
Work Step by Step
Yes, as an example
$$ f(x)=\frac{x^2-1}{x^2-x}$$
is not defined at $ x=1$; however, $$\lim\limits_{x \to 1}\frac{x^2-1}{x^2-x}=\lim\limits_{x \to 1}\frac{x+1}{x}=2.$$
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 2 - Limits - 2.2 Limits: A Numerical and Graphical Approach - Preliminary Questions - Page 53: 4
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