Answer
Yes, $g(w)=2\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^w$
Work Step by Step
Since $a^{-b}=\frac{1}{a^b}$, this function is the same as $$g(w)=2\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^w$$ Thus, the function is exponential with $a=2$ and $b=\frac{1}{2}$.
Functions Modeling Change: A Preparation for Calculus, 5th Edition
by Connally, Eric; Hughes-Hallett, Deborah; Gleason, Andrew M.; Cheifetz, Phil C.
Published by
Wiley
ISBN 10:
1118583191
ISBN 13:
978-1-11858-319-7
Chapter 4 - Exponential Functions - 4.1 Introduction to the Family of Exponential Functions - Exercises and Problems for Section 4.1 - Exercises and Problems - Page 145: 1
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