Answer
No, because if the distribution is uniform, the probability of obtaining any specific value are all the same and should be equal $\frac{1}{11}\approx0.09090$, but if we calculate $p(x=0)=0.75^{10}\approx0.56, p(x=10)=0.25^{10}\approx9.54\times10^{-7}$, this means that $p(x=0)\ne p(x=10)$
Work Step by Step
No, because if the distribution is uniform, the probability of obtaining any specific value are all the same and should be equal $\frac{1}{11}\approx0.09090$, but if we calculate $p(x=0)=0.75^{10}\approx0.56, p(x=10)=0.25^{10}\approx9.54\times10^{-7}$, this means that $p(x=0)\ne p(x=10)$
