Answer
a. Given any real number, you can find a real number so that the product of the two is 1. In other words, every real number has a multiplicative inverse. This statement is true.
b. There is a real number with the following property: No matter what real number is multiplied to it, the product of the two will be 1. In other words, there is one particular real number whose product with any real number is 1.
This statement is false; no one number will work for all numbers. For instance, if $x \cdot 1 = 1$, then x = 1, but in that case $x \cdot 2 = 2 \neq 1$.
Work Step by Step
Recall $\forall$ stands for "for all" and $\exists$ stands for "there exists."
